Determine the main quality indicators that typically affect health insurance pricing at the local level

/in /by

Answer the following questions on Public Health Services:

The Public Health Service originated in 1798 as the Marine Hospital Service. Identify two (2) motivating factors that prompted that development.
Why, in the 1960s, were the health-related programs of Medicare, Medicaid, and Neighborhood Health Centers assigned to non-health federal agencies instead of the Public Health Service? Please provide two (2) examples.
Public health efforts and those of private medicine complement each other and together serve the spectrum of health service needs of American society. Why, then, has their relationship been sometimes contentious and have they not consistently worked together proactively to improve the health status of Americans? Please provide two (2) examples.
Contrast the population-based orientation of public health with the individual-centered focus of private health practitioners. Provide two (2) examples.
Deaths in the United States that result from preventable causes total approximately 40% of all deaths each year. Deaths result from tobacco use, poor dietary habits and sedentary lifestyles. What additional two (2) actions should/could the U.S. health care system use to combat the factors that contribute to preventable deaths or incentivize more healthy living lifestyles among the most at-risk populations?

Prepare a fifteen to twenty (15 to 20) slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation with detailed scholarly speaker notes in which you:

Compare the three (3) current health care financing and funding models (i.e., employee based, government based, and individual based) used with the health care delivery system of the United States.
Compare and contrast key economic goals of public and private health insurance plans. Evaluate the success potential of key economic goals in terms of populations covered, services included, financing arrangements, reimbursement strategies, and economic competition policies.
Analyze the key effects of labor market, insurance market, and competitive market factors on health care delivery requirements at your current or previous organization of employment.
Determine what changes are occurring in the economy or concerning labor and regulatory factors that must be considered in the future.
Suggest the key national trends that you believe currently affect competition and pricing initiatives. Justify your response.
Determine the main quality indicators that typically affect health insurance pricing at the local level. Justify your response.
Usea minimum of six (6) reputable references sources including three (3) sources from peer-reviewed journals.

Determine what role health plays in developing economies

/in /by

Use the Internet to research one (1) developing nation of your choice. Your research should include an examination of lending institutions, health care, and human capital, as well as the material covered by the Webtext and lectures in Weeks 6 through 9.

Write a three to four (3-4) page research paper in which you:

Explore whether or not funding from international lending institutions like the World Bank and the IMF are helping or hindering the social, economic, or political development of the country that you have selected. Support your response with examples.
Discuss, with examples, at least four (4) substantive ways in which a healthy population strengthens the economy of the country that you have selected.
Ascertain the degree to which the leadership of your chosen country has used foreign aid to improve its health care system. Support your response with concrete examples.
Use at least five (5) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note:Wikipedia, blogs, and other nonacademic websites do not qualify as academic resources. Approval of resources is at the instructor’s discretion. Resources must also be within the last seven (7) years.
When referencing the selected resources, please use the following format:

Webtext Format:
Name of the author. Name of title. Retrieved from website url.
Example:
Soomo. Understanding Development [Webtext]. Retrieved from http://www.webtexts.com/courses/9218-cathey.

Lecture Format:
Name of the Author. Name of the lecture [lecture type]. Retrieved from lecture url.
Example:
Strayer University. (2013). Understanding Development [PowerPoint slides]. Retrieved from /bbcswebdav/institution/SOC/300/1136/Week1/lecture/story.html.

Internet Resources:
Author’s Name. (Date of publication). Title of the resource. Retrieved from website url.
Example:
Wuestewald, Eric. (2014). Portraits of people living on a dollar a day. Retrieved from http://www.motherjones.com/mixed-media/2014/04/living-on-a-dollar-a-day-photos-renee-byer-thomas-nazario.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Determine how human capital is used and what effect gender disparity has on these decisions.
Determine what role health plays in developing economies.
Examine the role that the International Monetary Fund and World Bank play in transfers and the conditions they set to effect this funding.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in sociology of developing countries.
Write clearly and concisely about sociology of developing countries using proper writing mechanics.

What does your topic bring that’s new to studies of food systems and food security?

/in /by

Topic is :
• Health issues around food? Choose a particular food, or economic or spatial problem
Please write a paper of 8-10 pages, 1.5 spaced (no extra-large fonts please, or super-wide margins!). Write on a food-related topic that interests you. Some choose to develop a topic they are working on independently, which is fine so long as it relates to food issues. Be guided by the syllabus and readings. Ask key questions appropriate for this class:

–What does your topic illustrate about some kind of food system?
–What are the implications for public health and wellbeing; environmental preservation?
–What does your topic bring that’s new to studies of food systems and food security?

Your discussion may be very negative, such as research into the global modification of native seeds as is occurring today. That’s fine, the above questions still apply. Maps, photos and other images are helpful, particularly with unfamiliar contexts.

GENERAL ADVICE re. WRITING TERM PAPERS
–Relate your writing to prevailing research. What is the discussion out there, what are the broader issues, why is this all important?
–Always reference your work. Remember, whenever you quote or base your ideas on the work of others, you must document your source. If a reading contributes to your arguments in the paper, give the authors credit.
–Be very careful to describe the context of what you are writing about. Where, when? It often helps to provide dates, particularly if you are discussing some social change or the launching of a new system. When did these occur? Also, “where?” It helps to provide spatial and geographic information. Don’t assume your reader knows what you’re talking about. Give your reader some idea of how widespread a phenomenon or practice is occurring: is it confined to the U.S. for instance, or widespread?

Assess external organizational and employee conditions as well as their implications to and impact on personnel management

/in /by

Revise the previous assignment based on your professor’s feedback.
Analyze at least two (2) laws or two (2) court decisions that have implications to the agency’s personnel management. (Title this section Laws Affecting the Agency)
Analyze at least three (3) major factors why the agency should address and three (3) major factors why the agency should not address Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender in their recruitment and hiring practices. (Title this section Personnel Recruitment and Hiring Practices)
Evaluate the agency’s approach to ethics and diversity training programs provided for new and existing employees, highlighting the strengths and weaknesses. (Title this section Ethics and Diversity Training)
Recommend at least two (2) actions the agency could take to improve in the areas of recruiting and training a diversified workforce. (Title this section Recommendations for Recruiting and Training a Diversified Workforce)
Include at least four (4) peer-reviewed references (no more than five [5] years old) from material outside the textbook. Note: Appropriate peer-reviewed references include scholarly articles and governmental Websites (Include no more than one non-government Website)
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Examine the major components of the personnel management system, procedures, and processes in the public sector.
Recommend improvements to processes involved in public personnel management and / or solutions to problems confronting those in the field.
Assess external organizational and employee conditions as well as their implications to and impact on personnel management.
Analyze pertinent issues, such as motivation and productivity, collective bargaining, labor relations, equal employment opportunity (EEO), affirmative action (AA), intergovernmental relations, and / or professionalism, facing public personnel managers.
Evaluate current and emerging issues and trends in public personnel management, such as evaluation, public sector recruitment, staffing employment development compensation, benefits, pensions, strategic planning, and / or succession planning.
Evaluate ethical issues surrounding public personnel management and training.
Develop a proposal for strategic public personnel management for a specific setting.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in public personnel management.
Write clearly and concisely about public personnel management using proper writing mechanics.

Examine how the proposed changes would impact your state’s public health insurance program

/in /by

Assignment 3: U.S. Health Policy Decision I suffer no illusions that this will be an easy process. It will be hard. But I also know that nearly a century after Teddy Roosevelt first called for reform, the cost of our healthcare has weighed down our economy and the conscience of our nation long enough. So, let there be no doubt: healthcare reform cannot wait, it must not wait, and it will not wait another year. —President Barack Obama, February 24, 2009 Using your textbook, the Argosy University online library resources, and the Internet, research the President’s proposed healthcare system changes. Refer to the research you did in M6: Assignment 2 and the issues you identified. Examine how the proposed changes would impact your state’s public health insurance program. • Overall, would your state benefit from the proposed changes or would it experience greater challenges? • What barriers do you see in implementing the proposed changes? Write your response to each question in 1 to 2 paragraphs. By Friday, December 9, 2016, deliver your assignment to the appropriate Discussion Area. Through Sunday, December 11, 2016, review and comment on your peers’ responses. Review the barriers to implementation identified by your classmates and offer solutions. All written assignments and responses should follow APA rules for attributing sources. Assignment 3 Grading Criteria Maximum Points Estimated the overall impact of the proposed changes on own state of residence. 8 Identified barriers to implementation of the proposed changes. 8 Supported statements with relevant information from reliable sources. 8 Actively contributed to the discussion by providing points of view with rationale, challenging points of the discussion, or drawing relationships between points of the discussion.

You have just attended a manager′s meeting about establishing self-directed, high-performing teams. The company is concerned because some of the managers are having success building self-directed, high-performing teams while others are not. A discussion occurred that identified the characteristics of the successful team building elements and compared them to those managers that have not been successful. This is a situation where those who are struggling need to learn from those who are doing well. The discussions included identifying what could be going wrong and what steps might be taken for success. You have been asked to write a research report that summarizes the meeting and offers some recommendations that might be helpful to those managers who are struggling. Specifically, your report must include: •Identification of the difficulties the managers may be having in establishing self-directed, high-performing teams •Identification of the successful characteristic of establishing self-directed, high-performing teams

Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?

/in /by

Question 1 2 / 2 points

Which statement about confusion is true?

Question options:

a) Confusion is a disease process.

b) Confusion is always temporary.

c) Age is a reliable predictor of confusion.

d) Polypharmacy is a major contributor to confusion in older adults.

Question 2 0 / 2 points

Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?

Question options:

a) Meclizine

b) Diphenhydramine

c) Diamox

d) Promethazine

Question 3 2 / 2 points

The hallmark of an absence seizure is:

Question options:

a) No activity at all

b) A blank stare

c) Urine is usually voided involuntarily

d) The attack usually lasts several minutes

Question 4 2 / 2 points

How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures, and the drug level is adequate?

Question options:

a) Every 3 months

b) Every 6 months

c) Annually

d) Whenever there is a problem

Question 5 2 / 2 points

Which of the following persons fits the classic description of a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS)?

Question options:

a) A teenage male

b) A 65-year-old male

c) A 25-year-old female

d) A 60-year-old female

Question 6 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is a specific test to MS?

Question options:

a) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

b) Computed tomography (CT) scan

c) A lumbar puncture

d) There is no specific test.

Question 7 2 / 2 points

Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Cholinesterase inhibitors

b) Anxiolytics

c) Antidepressants

d) Atypical antipsychotics

Question 8 2 / 2 points

Which hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and results from tears in the middle meningeal artery?

Question options:

a) Epidural hematoma

b) Subdural hematoma

c) Subarachnoid hematoma

d) Intraparenchymal hemorrhage

Question 9 2 / 2 points

Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?

Question options:

a) CN V

b) CN VII

c) CN IX

d) CN X

Question 10 2 / 2 points

Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?

Question options:

a) It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.

b) A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.

c) A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.

d) The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.

Question 11 2 / 2 points

Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?

Question options:

a) A female in her reproductive years

b) A 40-year-old African American male

c) A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily

d) A 45-year-old male awakened at night

Question 12 2 / 2 points

Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?

Question options:

a) Dementia

b) Alzheimer’s disease

c) Parkinson’s disease

d) Delirium

Question 13 2 / 2 points

Which type of meningitis is more benign, self-limiting, and caused primarily by a virus?

Question options:

a) Purulent meningitis

b) Chronic meningitis

c) Aseptic meningitis

d) Herpes meningitis

Question 14 2 / 2 points

Which is the most sensitive neuroimaging test to evaluate patients with encephalitis?

Question options:

a) MRI

b) CT

c) Electroencephalogram (EEG)

d) An initial lumbar puncture

Question 15 2 / 2 points

What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?

Question options:

a) A stabbing pain on one small area of the body

b) A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body

c) A pain that is worse upon awakening

d) A lesion on the exterior ear canal

Question 16 1 / 1 point

Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?

Question options:

a) “Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.”

b) “Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”

c) “Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”

d) “You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”

Question 17 2 / 2 points

Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him:

Question options:

a) “L-dopa is neuroprotective.”

b) “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”

c) “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.”

d) “This is the initial monotherapy drug.”

Question 18 2 / 2 points

Which of the following signs is seen in a patient with more advanced PD?

Question options:

a) Resting tremor

b) Bradykinesia

c) Rigidity

d) Postural instability

Question 19 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is the most commonly experienced symptom of migraine?

Question options:

a) Light sensitivity

b) Pulsatile pain

c) Sound sensitivity

d) Experiencing an aura

Question 20 2 / 2 points

Which of the following characteristics differentiates peripheral vertigo from central vertigo?

Question options:

a) The duration of central vertigo is shorter than that of peripheral vertigo.

b) There is an auditory-associated symptom with peripheral vertigo and a visual-associated symptom with central vertigo.

c) Central vertigo is positional, and peripheral vertigo is not.

d) The onset of central vertigo is more sudden than that of peripheral vertigo.

Question 21 2 / 2 points

Carotid endarterectomy should be considered only for symptomatic patients with greater than what percentage of stenosis?

Question options:

a) Greater than 25%

b) Greater than 50%

c) Greater than 75%

d) Only for 100% occlusion

Question 22 2 / 2 points

What antiplatelet agent is most widely used for secondary prevention of stroke?

Question options:

a) Aspirin

b) Ticlopidine

c) Clopidogrel

d) Aspirin and clopidogrel

Question 23 2 / 2 points

Which adjunctive diagnostic test should be used in the work-up of a patient with suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease or transient epileptic amnesia?

Question options:

a) MRI

b) CT

c) Cerebrospinal fluid analysis

d) EEG

Question 24 2 / 2 points

Which herbal preparation may cause delirium and should be avoided in an elderly patient?

Question options:

a) Sam-e

b) Saint John’s Wort

c) Melatonin

d) Saw Palmetto

Question 25 0 / 2 points

Which of the following activities is part of the functional activities questionnaire?

Question options:

a) Asking the patient to unravel a Rubik’s cube

b) Determining if the patient can drive on the highway

c) Asking the patient about a news event from the current week

d) Seeing if the patient can keep his or her home clean

Question 26 2 / 2 points

About 90% of all headaches are?

Question options:

a) Tension

b) Migraine

c) Cluster

d) Without pathological cause

Question 27 2 / 2 points

Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?

Question options:

a) Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again.

b) After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.

c) Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.

d) These persons may drive but never alone.

Question 28 2 / 2 points

Julie has relapsing-remitting muscular sclerosis. She has not had a good response to interferon. Which medication might help given intravenously once a month?

Question options:

a) Glatiramer acetate

b) Natalizumab

c) Fingolimod

d) Glucocorticoids

Question 29 2 / 2 points

The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?

Question options:

a) Parkinson’s disease

b) Alzheimer’s disease

c) A CVA

d) Bell’s palsy

Question 30 2 / 2 points

A ratchet-like rhythmic contraction, especially in the hand, during passive stretching is known as?

Question options:

a) Spinothalamic dysfunction

b) Ratcheting

c) Cogwheeling

d) Hand tremors

Question 31 2 / 2 points

Clinical features of insidious onset, slow progression, and a lack of other findings to explain the symptoms are fairly diagnostic of which condition?

Question options:

a) Guillain-Barré syndrome

b) Parkinson’s disease

c) Alzheimer’s disease

d) Huntington’s disease

Question 32 1 / 1 point

Which condition is characterized by the impaired ability to learn new information along with either a cognitive disturbance in language, function, or perception?

Question options:

a) Guillain-Barré syndrome

b) Parkinson’s disease

c) Alzheimer’s disease

d) Delirium

Question 33 2 / 2 points

A score of 20 to 25 on this test indicates early-stage Alzheimer’s disease:

Question options:

a) SLUMS

b) MoCA

c) FAST

d) MMSE

Question 34 2 / 2 points

Intravenous thrombolytic therapy following an ischemic CVA should be given within how many hours of symptom onset?

Question options:

a) 1 hour

b) 3 hours

c) 6 hours

d) 12 hours

Question 35 2 / 2 points

When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?

Question options:

a) Tension

b) Migraine

c) Cluster

d) Stress

Question 36 2 / 2 points

The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?

Question options:

a) Acetylcholine

b) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

c) Dopamine

d) Serotonin

Question 37 2 / 2 points

The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:

Question options:

a) 1 month

b) 3 months

c) 6 months

d) 12 months

Question 38 1 / 1 point

A patient presents to the clinician after experiencing four episodes in the last month of sweating, palpitations, chest pain, nausea, and shaking. Each episode lasted about 10 minutes. The patient is now becoming very fearful of future events and has been reluctant to leave the house. The clinician suspects panic disorder but wants to rule out any possible medical causes. Which of the following medical conditions can mimic the symptoms of a panic attack?

Question options:

a) Pheochromocytoma

b) Hyperthyroidism

c) Cardiac arrhythmias

d) All of the above

Question 39 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is considered first-line treatment for panic disorders?

Question options:

a) Benzodiazepines

b) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

c) Tricyclic antidepressants

d) Cognitive behavioral therapy

Question 40 1 / 1 point

Which of the following symptoms is not part of the diagnostic criteria for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

Question options:

a) Hypersomnolence

b) Blunted feelings

c) Loss of interest in significant activities

d) Intrusive recurrent recollections of the event

Question 41 2 / 2 points

Which of the following neuroendocrine abnormalities is implicated in depression?

Question options:

a) Decrease in adrenal size

b) Increased cortisol and corticotrophin-releasing hormone

c) An exaggerated response of thyrotropin (TRH) to infusion of thyroid-releasing hormone

d) Increased inhibitory response of glucocorticoids to dexamethasone

Question 42 2 / 2 points

The clinician has chosen to prescribe an SSRI instead of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) for a patient fitting the diagnostic criteria for depression. Which of the following is not true concerning SSRIs in comparison to tricyclic antidepressants?

Question options:

a) SSRIs are more effective than TCAs.

b) SSRIs take less time to work than TCAs.

c) SSRIs have a more favorable side-effect profile than TCAs.

d) SSRIs are not lethal in overdose.

Question 43 2 / 2 points

After discontinuing fluoxetine, how long must a person wait before starting a monoamine oxidase inhibitor?

Question options:

a) 2 weeks

b) 3 weeks

c) 4 weeks

d) 5 weeks

Question 44 2 / 2 points

It is important to educate patients with depression and their family members about reporting signs of increasing depression and suicidal thoughts. This is especially true during which time period?

Question options:

a) Before the initiation of treatment

b) 1 to 2 weeks after the initiation of treatment

c) When switching to a different medication

d) 1 to 2 weeks after tapering off medications

Question 45 2 / 2 points

A patient is experiencing extrapyramidal side effects from his antipsychotic medications. The clinician would most likely take which of the following approaches to treating these side effects?

Question options:

a) Give the patient a “drug holiday” until the symptoms resolve and then restart the medication.

b) Switch the patient to a different antipsychotic.

c) Treat the patient with anticholinergics.

d) Treat the patient with anticonvulsants.

Question 46 1 / 1 point

According to Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?

Question options:

a) Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance

b) Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression

c) Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance

d) Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

Question 47 1 / 1 point

The clinician is educating a patient about the effects of marijuana. The patient stated she has been smoking for years and believes the use does not interfere with her life. What is a significant long-term sequelae of marijuana use that the clinician should educate this patient about?

Question options:

a) Memory impairment

b) Sexual dysfunction

c) Dry mouth

d) There are no long-term consequences of marijuana use.

Question 48 2 / 2 points

Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?

Question options:

a) GABA

b) Acetylcholine

c) Dopamine

d) Serotonin

Question 49 2 / 2 points

What blood alcohol level corresponds with the signs of stupor and confusion?

Question options:

a) 0.05

b) 0.1

c) 0.2

d) 0.3

Question 50 2 / 2 points

Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep occurs how frequently during non-REM sleep?

Question options:

a) Every 30 minutes

b) Every 60 minutes

c) Every 90 minutes

d) Every 180 minutes

Question 51 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is a laboratory finding commonly found in patients with anorexia nervosa?

Question options:

a) Hypercholesterolemia

b) Hypermagnesmia

c) Leukocytosis

d) Decreased TRH

Question 52 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?

Question options:

a) Sertraline

b) Fluoxetine

c) Citoprolam

d) Imipramine

Question 53 2 / 2 points

Which of the following would be important to monitor in a child receiving methylphenidate for treatment of attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

Question options:

a) Liver function

b) Vision

c) Growth parameters

d) Renal function

Question 54 2 / 2 points

It is important for the clinician to discuss the long-term effects of sexual assault with survivors. Which of the following is the most common long-term effect of sexual assault?

Question options:

a) Depression

b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder

c) Substance abuse

d) PTSD

Question 55 2 / 2 points

Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?

Question options:

a) 2 weeks

b) 1 month

c) 3 months

d) 6 months

Question 56 2 / 2 points

Which is the most prevalent psychiatric condition in the United States?

Question options:

a) Depression

b) Anxiety

c) Substance-related addictions

d) Gambling

Question 57 1 / 1 point

What is recorded as clinical category two of the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision)?

Question options:

a) Clinical disorder or focus of clinical attention

b) Personality or environmental problems

c) Environmental and psychosocial stressors

d) Global assessment of functioning

Question 58 2 / 2 points

Which of the following may be used to evaluate a person’s suicide risk?

Question options:

a) CAGE

b) SANE

c) SAD PERSONAS

d) DIGFAST

Question 59 2 / 2 points

Assessing for adherence with prescribed medications and developing a plan for what to do if they are stopped is a major treatment issue for which of the following diagnostic groups?

Question options:

a) ADHD

b) Bipolar

c) Depression

d) Anxiety

Question 60 1 / 1 point

Bipolar disorder requires differential diagnosis from all of the following except?

Question options:

a) Substance abuse and medication effects

b) Medical and neurological disorders

c) Cluster B personality disorders and depression

d) Obsessive-compulsive disorder

Question 61 1 / 1 point

The use of benzodiazepines in the patient with generalized anxiety disorder and comorbid depression can exacerbate depressive symptoms.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 62 1 / 1 point

Depressive episodes associated with bipolar disorder are treated the same as major depressive disorder.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 63 1 / 1 point

Women in abusive relationships have a greater chance of being killed by their batterers when they leave the relationship than women who stay.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 64 1 / 1 point

Adults must show childhood onset of symptoms to receive a diagnosis of ADHD.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 65 1 / 1 point

Parkinson’s disease and dementing illnesses may commonly manifest depressive symptoms.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 66 1 / 1 point

The best predictor of suicide risk is a history of suicide attempts.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 67 1 / 1 point

A no-suicide contract can prevent a suicide attempt.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 68 1 / 1 point

Depression is the most chronic disabling and economically catastrophic medical disorder of the severe mental illnesses.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 69 1 / 1 point

Clozapine (Clozaril) requires laboratory monitoring at specified frequencies with results reported to a national registry.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 70 1 / 1 point

When combined with certain other medications, serotonin-specific antidepressants can have significant liver P450-interaction effects.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 71 1 / 1 point

A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her examination?

Question options:

a) Human papillomavirus (HPV)

b) Endometrial hyperplasia

c) Vagismus

d) Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Question 72 2 / 2 points

A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?

Question options:

a) Ceftriaxone

b) Doxycycline

c) Acyclovir

d) Metronidazole

Question 73 1 / 1 point

A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease has she most probably been exposed to?

Question options:

a) Gonorrhea

b) HPV

c) Chlamydia

d) Trichomonas

Question 74 1 / 1 point

A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear.Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?

Question options:

a) Trichomonas

b) Bacterial vaginosis

c) HPV

d) Herpes simplex virus

Question 75 2 / 2 points

Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?

Question options:

a) Metronidazole

b) Ceftriaxone

c) Diflucan

d) Doxycycline

Question 76 1 / 1 point

A 36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and discharge. On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the clinician notices hyphae. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?

Question options:

a) Fluconazole

b) Estrogen vaginal cream

c) Metronidazole

d) Doxycycline

Question 77 2 / 2 points

Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:

Question options:

a) Filiform/digitate wart

b) Dysplastic cervical lesion

c) Condyloma acuminata

d) Koilocytosis

Question 78 0 / 2 points

During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

Question options:

a) An enlarged rubbery gland

b) A hard irregular gland

c) A tender gland

d) A boggy gland

Question 79 2 / 2 points

Of the following types of cellulitis, which is a streptococcal infection of the superficial layers of the skin that does not involve the subcutaneous layers?

Question options:

a) Necrotizing fasciitis

b) Periorbital cellulitis

c) Erysipelas

d) “Flesh-eating” cellulitis

Question 80 2 / 2 points

The forced vital capacity is decreased in:

Question options:

a) Asthma

b) Chronic bronchitis

c) Emphysema

d) Restrictive disease

Question 81 2 / 2 points

The most common cause of CAP is?

Question options:

a) Streptococcus pneumoniae

b) Klebsiella pneumoniae

c) Legionella pneumoniae

d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Question 82 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is a possible consequence of sleep apnea?

Question options:

a) Asthma

b) Increased white blood cells

c) Insulin resistance

d) Hyperactivity

Question 83 2 / 2 points

The majority of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?

Question options:

a) IgA

b) IgE

c) IgG

d) IgM

Question 84 2 / 2 points

A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?

Question options:

a) The scrotum will be dark.

b) The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.

c) The scrotum will appear milky white.

d) The internal structures will be clearly visible.

Question 85 0 / 2 points

During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

Question options:

a) An enlarged rubbery gland

b) A hard irregular gland

c) A tender gland

d) A boggy gland

Question 86 2 / 2 points

A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with C2 prostate cancer, and he asks the clinician what that means. In order to answer the patient, the clinician must have which of these understandings of the Jewett rating system?

Question options:

a) The cancer involves the seminal vesicles.

b) There is metastatic disease to regional lymph nodes.

c) The cancer is confined to the capsule.

d) There is metastasis to distant organs.

Question 87 1 / 1 point

A 58-year-old patient has been receiving leuprolide as treatment for prostate cancer. The clinician should instruct the patient about which of these side effects?

Question options:

a) Risk of osteoporosis

b) May have hot flushes

c) May have impotence

d) All of the above

Question 88 1 / 1 point

A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE).Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?

Question options:

a) Testicular cancer

b) Inguinal hernia

c) Varicocele

d) All of the above

Question 89 1 / 1 point

What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?

Question options:

a) Radical orchidectomy

b) Lumpectomy

c) Radiation implants

d) All of the above

Question 90 1 / 1 point

A patient with testicular cancer is being followed after completing treatment 1 year ago. He has been symptom-free with no evidence of disease. How often should he have a CT scan?

Question options:

a) Every month

b) Every 3 to 4 months

c) Every 6 to 12 months

d) Every year

Question 91 2 / 2 points

Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?

Question options:

a) “You must be under a lot of stress lately.”

b) “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”

c) “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”

d) “We’ll have to do some tests.”

Question 92 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is “a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?”

Question options:

a) An ulcer

b) A fissure

c) Lichenification

d) An excoriation

Question 93 2 / 2 points

A bulla is:

Question options:

a) A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter

b) An elevated solid mass with a hard texture; the shape and borders can be regular or irregular

c) A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid

d) Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent

Question 94 1 / 1 point

A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds.What should you do?

Question options:

a) Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.

b) Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.

c) Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.

d) Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.

Question 95 1 / 1 point

Osteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 96 1 / 1 point

The presence of a positive rheumatoid factor is always indicative of rheumatoid arthritis.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 97 2 / 2 points

Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?

Question options:

a) Prednisone

b) Metformin

c) Synthroid

d) Cephalexin

Question 98 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?

Question options:

a) A1C 7.0 on one occasion

b) Fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 100 mg/dL on two occasions

c) Random glucose of 200 mg/dL on two occasions

d) Two-hour post-load plasma glucose of 300 mg/dL on one occasion

Question 99 2 / 2 points

Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?

Question options:

a) Insulin

b) Metformin

c) Glucotrol

d) Precose

Question 100 1 / 1 point

A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia.There is no history of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Anxiety disorder

b) Pheochromocytoma

c) Psychosis

d) All of the above

What advantages does fund accounting provide to maintain compliance to GAAP?

/in /by

Cleverly written sales proposals may mask a capital lease agreement when an operating lease is desired to obtain equipment. List and describe the criteria set forth by the IRS that must be present for a lease agreement to be considered a capital lease.
While the cost of using new health care technologies is rising rapidly,
most managers are faced with the challenge of making balanced decisions achieving both cost efficiency and cost effectiveness ?

Describe a strategic process that you would employ to

evaluate complex projects that require both efficiency and effectiveness as performance requirements

While most health care organizations are organized as tax exempt,
there are a growing number of for-profit corporations that maintain

publicly traded common stock.

Discuss the legal steps needed for a business to become
incorporated.

What type of steps may a corporation take to control the
issuance of common stock to prevent a takeover of their

business by an unwelcome competitor?

What may a corporate board of directors choose to do to reward its loyal common stockholders with a valuable return on their investment if they are unable to provide a substantial cash dividend? Explain the accounting transactions linked to that strategy.

Owners of bonds and preferred stocks are considered primarily creditors of a business. However, in some instances they also have the capability of becoming corporate owners.
Describe the situations where debt make be converted into
common stock equity.

Explain the difference between preferred stocks and bonds
in terms of the level of risk in being able to receive interest payments. What types of protection do these debt instruments

have to reduce investor’s anxiety?

What advantages do tax exempt bonds have to both the bond
holder and the bond issuer?

Many tax-exempt health care organizations are required to use fund
accounting?

What advantages does fund accounting provide to maintain
compliance to GAAP?

What is an endowment? Can endowments be legally changed ?

A hospital CFO is gathering information to forecast the investment
needs of the organization. He has to have adequate funding available to replace worn out patient care equipment over the next several years.

determine if it is saving the hospital money by freeing up bed space in a more timely fashion

/in /by

Have you ever watched a movie in which the same scene was shown several times but as viewed by different individuals? Or, have you watched a detective show in which the witnesses all had differing accounts? The same can hold true for conducting an evaluation of a health information technology project. How you plan and conduct the evaluation is largely dependent on the viewpoint you assume and the perspective with which you approach the evaluation.

Consider a new patient discharge protocol at a small hospital. Do you want to know how the patient feels about the process? Do you want to gather the opinions of nurses who are using this process? Perhaps you want to determine if it is saving the hospital money by freeing up bed space in a more timely fashion. Obtaining each of these viewpoints would require a different approach. Depending on the goal of your evaluation, the model and viewpoint you opt to use will likely vary.

In this Discussion, determine which evaluation model would be most effective for evaluating the health information technology described in one of the scenarios below. Your Instructor will assign a specific scenario by Day 1 of this week.

Scenario 1:You have recently provided a training program to help nurses and physicians become proficient in the use of a new bedside medication verification (BMV) system.
Scenario 2:The Chief Medical Officer at your hospital is interested in finding out the impact of a new decision support system on the number of adverse events occurring in the past year.
Scenario 3:You are helping with the design of a new outpatient surgery center to be built adjacent to the hospital. You are tasked with evaluating the opinions of physicians, nurses, and the general public toward this facility.
To prepare:

Review the information on the types of evaluation models covered in this week’s Learning Resources.
Determine which model would be most appropriate to use for evaluation in the scenario to which you were assigned.
Consider why the viewpoint of the scenario or situation would impact the model used.
View the scenario from a different viewpoint, and consider how a different model might be used.

What are the health consequences of ETS?

/in /by

Your final paper introduction (one page) should include the following points:
An overview of the research paper
The purpose or objective of the research paper
The body of the paper (five to six pages) should address each of the following topics using information learned in the course, in combination with outside references:
What are some of the major issues faced by today’s behavioral healthcare system? How have the current and future trends that are evolving in the industry addressed some of those issues?
Do you think there is a difference between the changing trends taking place in the private sector and that of public behavioral healthcare inpatient facilities? Based on your understanding about behavioral health services and the populations being served by them, do you agree that both private and public organizations are able to provide the necessary clinical services? Provide a rationale in support of your response.
In behavioral healthcare, outcomes are the established norm for measuring the success or lack of services. What are some of the major challenges in collecting the data needed to support and report behavioral health outcomes? Provide a rationale for your response.
Quality of care and services is an important part of an outcome-based strategy. The objective behind maintaining and improving quality is to provide competent and efficient services to consumers. In your opinion, do the current regulatory and accreditation standards for the behavioral health industry help to meet that objective? How?
Your conclusion (one to two pages) should include the following points:
What conclusions can you draw from your research that would demonstrate the role played by behavioral health in the healthcare industry?
What changes would you like to bring to today’s behavioral healthcare system in order to resolve the current issues identified?
Based on your literature review, if you were asked to conduct a formal research project on any of the topics discussed in the research paper, what would your choice be and why?

Answer the following questions after you have completed lectures up to Risk Management.

Hazard Identification

What are the hazards of ETS to non-smokers?
How were they identified?
Exposure Assessment

What exposure levels are non-smokers subjected to?
Where did this information come from?
Risk Estimation

What are the health consequences of ETS?
For spouses?
For children?
What is the range of relative risk for lung cancer for non-smokers married to smokers?
What evidence was used to rate ETS as a human carcinogen?
Has a threshold level been established?
Any other risks besides health effects? What are they, if any?
Risk Control Reduction

What has been done to try and reduce the public’s exposure to ETS?
Monitoring/Evaluating Risk Control Measures

What have been the effect of the workplace smoking bans?
What are savings associated with workplace bans?
What are the costs associated with workplace bans?
What is the conclusion of this review?

Describe the influence competition has on the services offered by health care organizations and the choices patients have

/in /by

One of the trends marking the continuing transformation of the U.S. health care industry is the dramatic increase in the pace of competition. The heightened competition is taking place among hospitals, health plans, physician groups, and drug companies, and between physicians and hospitals, and hospitals and health plans. Listen to the Looking Ahead: The Future of Health Care Policy podcast from National Public Radio (NPR). Then, prepare a three- to five-page paper in which you:

Describe the different forms of competition that take place among various types of health care organizations.
Evaluate the benefits and pitfalls of competition in health care and suggest alternatives if competition was not the primary driver of operations in the U.S. health care system.
Explain the elements of successful competition and the use of competitive intelligence.
Describe the influence competition has on the services offered by health care organizations and the choices patients have.
Your paper must be three to five double-spaced pages (excluding title and reference pages) and formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center. Utilize a minimum of two scholarly sources that were published within the last five years. One source must be obtained from the Ashford University Library and focus on competition health care. All sources must be documented in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.

What does it mean to analyze the collected data from a program evaluation? An analysis involves reviewing multiple components, such as analyzing and synthesizing findings. This includes tabulating information to explore how many individuals participate in the program, reviewing demographics, analyzing the number of participants achieving the outcome goals, and analyzing and stratifying data by race, gender, age, income level, and geographic locations. It is also important to conduct a comparative analysis to review strengths, weaknesses, and any limitations and to review gaps. The next step is combining all of this information to make decisions and present to stakeholders for further input and suggestions regarding the program.

Using the Internet, obtain scholarly articles and materials to draw inferences and support your philosophy.

Respond to the following:
• Compare and contrast qualitative and quantitative methods used for designing a program. (Use a 2×2-table format to present your analysis).
• Review the decision tree for statistics. You can review the tree online at the following:
o The Decision Tree for Statistics. (n.d.). http://www.microsiris.com/Statistical%20Decision%20Tree/
• After reviewing the information:
o Select three public health statistical methods that you would use in a public health program for your selected health issue or health disease topic.
o Provide a complete analysis for each statistical method.
o Explain why these methods are important and what data or information you could obtain for your program.